Flying ops quiz – Spring 2024

1. A METAR is issued routinely:
   1. when weather conditions deteriorate below a specified limit
   2. every 12 hours
   3. every hour or half hour
   4. every 3 hours
2. Wind information given in aerodrome forecasts indicates the direction:
   1. from which the wind is blowing in degrees magnetic
   2. from which the wind is blowing in degrees true
   3. to which the wind is blowing in degrees magnetic
   4. to which the wind is blowing in degrees true
3. The term INTER 0309, as used in a TAF, means:
   1. there will be intermittent changes from the prevailing conditions between 0300UTC and 0900UTC for periods of less than 30 minutes
   2. intervals of between 3 and 9 minutes of deteriorating weather will occur
   3. there will be an interruption of prevailing conditions commencing at 0309UTC
   4. a permanent change in prevailing conditions is expected between 0300UTC and 0900UTC and it will occur in a time of less than 30 minutes
4. TAF3 are issued:
   1. every 3 hours
   2. every 12 hours
   3. every hour
   4. when conditions deteriorate below specified limits
5. To operate under a Special VFR clearance, the pilot of an aeroplane must be able to maintain:
   1. 1,000 ft cloud separation and 5 km visibility
   2. 500 ft cloud separation and 1,500 m visibility
   3. clear of cloud and 1,600 m visibility
   4. clear of cloud and 5 km visibility
6. When travelling more than 50 nm from your departure aerodrome, which of the following requires an alternate aerodrome at your destination? The max crosswind for your aircraft is 15 kts.
   1. visibility of 8 km
   2. 3/8 cloud with a 1,400 ft ceiling
   3. 15 kt steady crosswind
   4. 30% probability of visibility restricted to 7 km
7. TAF YMER 040130Z 0214 02020G35KT 9999 RA FEW012 BKN030 BKN100 FM04 25015KT 9999 RASH BKN025.
   Departing YSWG 0000 – YSCB – arrive YMER 0200. The forecast wind velocity for arrival in the circuit area YMER is:
   1. 020 deg (T), 20G35 kt
   2. 250 deg (T), 15 kt
   3. 250 deg (M), 15 kt
   4. 020 deg (M), 20G35 kt
8. A forecast for destination and any alternate aerodromes must be valid for:
   1. the estimated time of arrival
   2. 60 min before to 60 min after estimated time of arrival
   3. 30 min before to 30 min after estimated time of arrival
   4. 30 min before to 60 min after estimated time of arrival
9. When operating in Class G airspace, at 3,000 ft AMSL or 1,000 ft AGL, whichever is higher, the VMC criteria is:
   1. 8 km visibility, clear of cloud
   2. 5 km visibility, clear of cloud
   3. 8 km visibility, 1,000 ft vertical separation from cloud
   4. 5 km visibility, 1,000 ft vertical separation from cloud
10. Clear ice is most likely encountered:
    1. between 0 and -10C in stratiform cloud
    2. between 0 and -40 in cumuliform cloud
    3. between -10C and -20C in stratiform cloud
    4. between 0 and -10C in cumuliform cloud
11. The GAF indicates there will be ‘broken’ stratus with the cloud top at 4,000 ft AMSL along your planned route OCTA. Your planned track is 085 deg (M). To maintain VMC and conform to the ‘Table of cruising levels’, what is the lowest altitude that you can plan:
    1. A045
    2. A055
    3. A030
    4. A065
12. You are planning a flight from Parkes to Scone. The GAFs needed for this flight are:
    1. NSW-W
    2. NSW-E
    3. VIC
    4. NSW-E and NSW-W
13. Which of the following would NOT prompt the issue of a SPECI:
    1. thunderstorms
    2. moderate or heavy precipitation
    3. wind changes more than 20 degrees
    4. visibility less than 5,000 m
14. If you encounter turbulence that is significantly greater than that forecast,
    what type of report should you submit?
    1. SIGMET
    2. SPECI
    3. AIREP special
    4. METAR
15. When TS are forecast in a GAF, it always implies:
    1. moderate turbulence
    2. moderate icing
    3. strong updrafts
    4. severe turbulence

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